# Why not Taragorn?



## Fredrik Felagund (Nov 21, 2022)

Hello.

New member with a question.

The name of all the kings of Arnor (or actually Arthedain), from Argeleb I (ruling from TA1349) onwards, and all the chieftains of the Dunedain, starts with "Ar". Also, "Arthedain" and "Arnor" starts with "Ar".
The word, in both Adûnaic and Sindarin, for "king" (or is it ruler?) is "Ar" (Ar-Pharazôn, Ar-Zimrathon...), but Quenya is "Tar" (Tar-Ancalimë, Tar-Surion...).

It seems unlikely that 25 consecutive rulers, for 2000 years, all has the prefix "Ar", that just happens to mean "King" to their name just by coincidence.

Still, it seems likely that Adûnaic (and therefore "Ar") had gone out of fashion with the Kings men, Pharazôn and his ambitions and the slightly bothersome downfall.

I am aware that Adûnaic evolved into Westron, a language for the commoners, but why do the descendants of the north kingdom, in close contact with Elrond, and at least Aragorn with a demonstrated knowledge of Quenya (in the houses of healing), use the Sindarin prefix "Ar", instead of Quenya "Tar"? Is it to show that they are loosing their heritage and becoming more of middle men? The coincidence that Adûnaic and Sindarin shares the same word ("Ar") goes some way to explaining it and I am aware of the distinction of "Aragorn" and "Ar-Agorn", but it seems to me that the association with Ar-Pharazôn is one I would have wanted to escape, as king.
Aragorn himself ascended as Elessar, a name in Quenya, probably signifying "a return to the good old ways".

Or, in short, why is he not named "Taragorn"?

/ Best regards, Fredrik


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## Elbereth Vala Varda (Nov 21, 2022)

Ask Arathorn II or Gilraen, I guess...


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## Starbrow (Nov 21, 2022)

The kings of Arthedain started beginning their names with Ar- to show that they had rulership over all of Arnor once the kingdoms of Cardolan and Rhudaur ended.


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